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> German and Soviet contribution to the starting of WW2
Imperialist
Posted: July 12, 2006 10:09 am
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QUOTE (saudadesdefrancesinhas @ Jul 12 2006, 09:55 AM)
You can only blame the allies for starting World War Two by saying that they failed in their efforts to restrict German aggression. The main blame aught to lie with the Germans, for having the aggressive aims in the first place.

Yes, this is exactly what I said, or if it wasnt clear enough, meant to say. I did point out Germany was the no.1 guilty party. But the western powers were next because they appeased Germany, and this weakened the eastern countries, and gave birth to conspiracy theories in the SU which feared a common goal between the western powers and the "middle power" nazi Germany.


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saudadesdefrancesinhas
Posted: July 12, 2006 10:12 am
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QUOTE (Dan Po @ Jul 12 2006, 07:11 AM)
Well, I prefer the science instead of the magic. And Im not sure about the scientifical value of your "proportions". No offence ! smile.gif

We have enough arguments to consider that the 22 june 1941 was a "preventive atack". The Red Army was massed at the western borders of Soviet Union. The soviet offensive against the wester Europe was a matter of time.

It is true that the scientific value of my arguments is limited. smile.gif

There is almost no evidence that I have come across at least that Barbarossa was a preemptive attack at all, if you have evidence please feel free to quote it, and which sources you are deriving it from.

I have noticed that people are posting fairly general points about things like Soviet Foreign Policy, Ethics etc. in much more general terms, as evidence for the USSRs responsibility in starting the Second World War. The same thing could be said about ideas about the railway system, armaments build up etc.

Instead of basing ideas about Soviet involvement on such vague facts, it is possibly to find out how the Russian, German etc. leaders were actually seeing the situation at the time. What goals and aims did they have through the thirties, how did they orientate their foreign policy etc.

This can be done via the large quantity of good, well researched books on these subjects, when they are based on extensive use of contemporary material. From this material, the Nazi leadership admit quite freely and frequently that they are aiming at unprovoked aggressive conquest, the only moral justification for such actions being that afterwards when they have been successful no one will bother about how they were successful. Indeed, Nazism rejected all conventional morality in favour of a law of the jungle mentality quite specifically.

I have to find out more about Soviet Policy in the 30s, but nothing I have come across in relation to any other European country and it's diplomacy has indicated such aggressive and amoral intentions as the Nazis were happy to be explicit about.

And they fully implemented them, and took the consequences.
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saudadesdefrancesinhas
Posted: July 12, 2006 10:17 am
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QUOTE (Imperialist @ Jul 12 2006, 10:09 AM)
QUOTE (saudadesdefrancesinhas @ Jul 12 2006, 09:55 AM)
You can only blame the allies for starting World War Two by saying that they failed in their efforts to restrict German aggression. The main blame aught to lie with the Germans, for having the aggressive aims in the first place.

Yes, this is exactly what I said, or if it wasnt clear enough, meant to say. I did point out Germany was the no.1 guilty party. But the western powers were next because they appeased Germany, and this weakened the eastern countries, and gave birth to conspiracy theories in the SU which feared a common goal between the western powers and the "middle power" nazi Germany.

Hi Imperialist,

I think this is probably true, but I think the guilt of the Western powers, and the USSR, and any other European country is very very small in comparaison to the German guilt.

The Western powers, France and UK, were quite eager to fight the USSR I think, during the war against Finland they quite seriously discussed declaring war on the USSR and sending divisions to fight with the Finns, even though war with Germany had already started.
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Victor
Posted: July 12, 2006 10:56 am
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QUOTE (Dan Po @ Jul 12 2006, 09:11 AM)
We have enough arguments to consider that the 22 june 1941 was a "preventive atack". The Red Army was massed at the western borders of Soviet Union. The soviet offensive against the wester Europe was a matter of time.

How much time? If you mean a couple of years, yes, but if you are talking about days/weeks, than definately no.
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D13-th_Mytzu
Posted: July 12, 2006 10:56 am
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40% (your own figure for USSR contribution) I would not say it is very very small, au contraire: very very big smile.gif a major one even.
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saudadesdefrancesinhas
Posted: July 12, 2006 03:42 pm
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I know that's why I changed my assessment, it must have got lost in the flurry of posts.

Here's the new assessment:

Something like 5% everyone but Germany.

95% Germany

Germany was also mainly responsible for the other one I think too.
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D13-th_Mytzu
Posted: July 12, 2006 03:45 pm
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lol smile.gif
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saudadesdefrancesinhas
Posted: July 13, 2006 09:42 am
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Come on, you know they did. smile.gif
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Dan Po
Posted: July 13, 2006 01:51 pm
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QUOTE (Victor @ Jul 12 2006, 01:56 PM)
QUOTE (Dan Po @ Jul 12 2006, 09:11 AM)
We have enough arguments to consider that the 22 june 1941 was a "preventive atack". The Red Army was massed at the western borders of Soviet Union. The soviet offensive against the wester Europe was a matter of time.

How much time? If you mean a couple of years, yes, but if you are talking about days/weeks, than definately no.

Its hard to say precisely but I think it was a matter of weeks or months. Son I will come back with some arguments.

* I will play as the advocate of Suvurov s Theory. Im not 100% convinced but I think that we need to considere it.





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mabadesc
Posted: July 13, 2006 02:30 pm
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QUOTE
QUOTE (Dan Po @ Jul 12 2006, 07:11 AM)
The Red Army was massed at the western borders of Soviet Union. The soviet offensive against the wester Europe was a matter of time. 


Where would you have expected it to mass? In Siberia, Caucasus, on the border of China?
Historically Russia has always focused on Europe. Most of its wars were in Europe, most of its competitors and opponents were in Europe. Russia's center of gravity was closer to Europe than to Japan, so naturally the bulk of its armies would be massed here, not in the far east.


If the Soviet Union was merely trying to defend against a possible invasion, then its forces would not have been massed on the Western Border, but rather echeloned in depth. It's one of the basic defensive principles - you don't place all your armies on the border so that the enemy can surround and destroy them (which happened to a large degree during the first days of the war).

If, however, the SU was preparing an offensive, then yes, it would have been logical to have its troops massed close to the border, ready for a jump-off move.

According to Dan Po, who follows Suvorov's argument, a Soviet offensive was imminent in June 1941, and based on the position of Soviet troops it's difficult to argue the contrary.

What is impossible to predict is how soon that offensive would have taken place. It was definitely not a question of years. But was it a few weeks, or a few months, or maybe even close to a year? Difficult to say.

P.S. We should also not forget that Stalin's rhetoric within party meetings and conferences abruptly changed in 1941 from a proponent of peace to advocating all means necessary, including war, to spread communism to the world (see Merridale, Suvorov, Montefiore).

This post has been edited by mabadesc on July 13, 2006 02:34 pm
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dead-cat
Posted: July 13, 2006 02:41 pm
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According to Dan Po, who follows Suvorov's argument, a Soviet offensive was imminent in June 1941, and based on the position of Soviet troops it's difficult to argue the contrary.

IIRC according to Suvorov an attack was planned for fall '41, as soviet deployment was behind schedule.
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Imperialist
Posted: July 13, 2006 02:43 pm
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There is already a thread dedicated to Suvorov's theory:

http://www.worldwar2.ro/forum/index.php?showtopic=2137


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Jeff_S
Posted: July 13, 2006 05:01 pm
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QUOTE (Imperialist @ Jul 12 2006, 05:09 AM)
Yes, this is exactly what I said, or if it wasnt clear enough, meant to say. I did point out Germany was the no.1 guilty party. But the western powers were next because they appeased Germany, and this weakened the eastern countries, and gave birth to conspiracy theories in the SU which feared a common goal between the western powers and the "middle power" nazi Germany.

I find this line of reasoning quite bizarre Imperialist. Certainly, it is not controversial that Western appeasement encouraged Hitler. We will never known what would have happened if Britain and France had stood up to Hitler over the Rhineland, or the Austrain Anschluss or Sudetenland. But to say that they are guilty in some moral sense goes too far, in my opinion.

Let's say there is a thief loose in my city. He robs my house, then goes on to rob 10 more houses. Using this logic the thief is most guilty, but I am also guilty because I did not put bars on my windows and better locks on my door, and this encouraged the thief. Maybe I was foolish, but I'm not responsible to the other victims for the thief's actions. Same with Britain and France -- it's easy in hind-sight to say that they were foolish or cowardly. But that doesn't make them guilty of starting the war. Avoiding war was the highest priority (too high, most would say).

To the extant that the western Allies are morally responsible for Hitler, I would say it lies in the use of the Versailles treaty to punish Germany well beyond her actual level of guilt (for starting World War I).
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Imperialist
Posted: July 13, 2006 05:45 pm
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QUOTE (Jeff_S @ Jul 13 2006, 05:01 PM)
Let's say there is a thief loose in my city. He robs my house, then goes on to rob 10 more houses. Using this logic the thief is most guilty, but I am also guilty because I did not put bars on my windows and better locks on my door, and this encouraged the thief. Maybe I was foolish, but I'm not responsible to the other victims for the thief's actions.

If you sign a pact with the thief saying you will allow him to take a neighbours' property if he doesnt start looting your property or start a general fire in the neighbourhood over this issue then you share moral responsibility for his subsequent actions. Especialy if you were supposed to guarantee law and order in that neighbourhood AND you had a pact guaranteeing your neighbours property rights.


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dead-cat
Posted: July 14, 2006 08:05 am
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Let's say there is a thief loose in my city. He robs my house, then goes on to rob 10 more houses. Using this logic the thief is most guilty, but I am also guilty because I did not put bars on my windows and better locks on my door, and this encouraged the thief.

if you ask your insurance, you'll find that they see it exactly that way, especially if you have an insurance against break-ins. biggrin.gif
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